You have an array $a$ of $n$ integers.

You can no more than once apply the following operation: select three integers $i$, $j$, $x$ ($1 \le i \le j \le n$) and assign all elements of the array with indexes from $i$ to $j$ the value $x$. The price of this operation depends on the selected indices and is equal to $(j - i + 1)$ burles.

For example, the array is equal to $[1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1]$. If we choose $i = 2, j = 4, x = 8$, then after applying this operation, the array will be equal to $[1, 8, 8, 8, 5, 1]$.

What is the least amount of burles you need to spend to make all the elements of the array equal?

The first line contains a single integer $t$ ($1 \le t \le 10^4$) — the number of input test cases. The descriptions of the test cases follow.

The first line of the description of each test case contains a single integer $n$ ($1 \le n \le 2 \cdot 10 ^ 5$) — the size of the array.

The second line of the description of each test case contains $n$ integers $a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n$ ($1 \le a_i \le n$) — array elements.

It is guaranteed that the sum of $n$ for all test cases does not exceed $2 \cdot 10^5$.

For each test case, output one integer — the minimum number of burles that will have to be spent to make all the elements of the array equal. It can be shown that this can always be done.